Tag: TNPSC Exam

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers

Classification Questions with Answers MCQ of reasoning are very useful in Management (CAT, MAT), IBPS (PO and Clerk), SSC, SBI, LIC and other competitive exams.

1. (a) Portrait (b) Snapshot (c) Diagram (d) Sketch (e) Painting

2. (a) Knave (b) King (c) Ace (d) Queen (e) Minister

3. (a) Complicated (b) Tricky (c) Complex (d) Confusing (e) Contrast

4. (a) Konark (b) Madurai (c) Ellora (d) Khajuraho (e) Dilwara

5. (a) Pew (b) Altar (c) Mettle (d) Choir (e) Pulpit

6. (a) NOQT (b) DEHK (c) BCEH (d) RSUX (e) JKMP

7. (a) MLI (b) FEB (c) UTQ (d) ZYV (e) SRN

8. (a) TUWZ (b) CDFJ (c) KLNQ (d) RSUX (e) GHJM

9. (a) KHJG (b) PMOL (c) SPRN (d) QNPM (e) BYAX

10. (a) CdaB (b) VwtU (c) LmjK (d) RsqP (e) HifG

11. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 28 (c) 4 : 65 (d) 2 : 7 (e) 5 : 126

12. (a) 125 (b) 216 (c) 27 (d) 121 (e) 1

13. (a) 5 : 9 (b) 7 : 11 (c) 13 : 17 (d) 29 : 31 (e) 17 : 19

14. (a) 22 : 8 (b) 24 : 20 (c) 32 : 15 (d) 14 : 17 (e) 91 : 82

15. (a) 43 (b) 53 (c) 63 (d) 73 (e) 83

Answers–
1. (b) All other arts are the works on paper.
2. (e) All other terms are used in the playing cards.
3. (e) All other terms are used to denote the complex nature of something.
4. (c) ‘Ellora’ is famous for caves, all others are famous for temples.
5. (c) All other things are related to the ‘Church’.
6. (b) In all other groups of words there is a gap of one letter as in the alphabet between second and third letters.
7. (e) In all other groups, there is a gap of two letters as in the alphabet between second and third letters.
8. (b) In all other groups first and second letters are the consecutive letters of the alphabet.
9. (c) In all other groups second and fourth letters are the consecutive letters of the alphabet.
10. (d) In all other groups third and fourth letters are consecutive alphabet.
11. (d) Second number is one more than the cube of the first number.
12. (d) All other numbers are cubes of natural numbers.
13. (a) Second number is the next prime number to the first number.
14. (c) Second number is the sum of the square of the digits of the first number.
15. (c) All other numbers are prime numbers

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers

Coding and Decoding Questions with Answers MCQ of reasoning are very useful in Management (CAT, MAT), IBPS (PO and Clerk), SSC, SBI, LIC and other competitive exams.
1. In a certain code, GIGANTIC is written as GIGTANCI. How is MIRACLES written in that code?
(a) MIRLCAES (b) MIRLACSE (c) RIMCALSE (d) RIMLCAES

2. In a certain code, RPODUCTS is written as NPMBSARQ. How is COMPREHENSION written in that code?
(a) AMKNPCFCLOMLQ (b) AMKNPCFCLQGML (c) AMKNPCFCLQGNL (d) AMKNPCFCKOML

3. If CARPET is coded as TCEAPR, then the code for NATIONAL would be–
(a) NLATNOIA (b) LANOITAN (c) LNAANTOI (d) LNOINTAA

4. In a code language if POSE is coded as OQNPRTDF, then the word TYPE will be coded as–
(a) SUXZOQFD (b) SUXZQOFD (c) SUXZOQDF (d) SUXZQODE

5. In a certain code language’ COMPUTRONE’ is written as ‘PMOCTUENOR’. How is ‘ADVANTAGES’ written in that code language?
(a) AVDATASEGN (b) NAVDASEGAT (c) AVDATNSEGA (d) SEGATNAVAD

6. If in a code language MADRAS is coded as TBSEBN, then NEW DELHI will be coded as–
(a) JNKFEXFO (b) JIMFFUFO (c) JIMFEXFO (d) JIMFEXEP

7. If SYSTEM is written as SYSMET, and NEARER as AENRER, then FRACTION will be coded as:
(a) ARFITOON (b) CARFNOIT (c) ARFITCNO (d) NOITCARF

8. If ZUBIN is coded as ATCHO, then MEHTA will be coded as–
(a) NDIUB (b) NDISB (c) NDGSB (d) NDHSI

9. If EQOKYO stands for DOLLAR, and QQXMBP stands for POUNDS, then the code for MARK will be–
(a) NCUO (b) NCUJ (c) NCQI (d) NCPH

10. If in certain code language, UNTENSIL is coded as WVGPUKN, then which word would be coded as DMSFXG?
(a) BKQEVE (b) BKQDWE (c) BKQDWF (d) BKQDVE

11. In a certain code BROUGHT is written as SGFVAQN. How is SUPREME written in that code?
(a) FNFSRTO (b) RTOSDLD (c) DLDSRTO (d) DLDSTVQ

12. Using the above coding procedure, ‘creatures killed watchman’ would be coded as–
(a) maw gaw daw (b) maw vaw naw (c) gawk aw daw (d) gaw new kaw

13. If you use the above coding procedure, how would you code ‘cik’?
(a) is (b) Mohan (c) there (d) reaching

14. According to the above code, ‘Men need encouragement’ would be–
(a) 167 (b) 258 (c) 268 (d) 157

15. In a certain language, ‘Tom Kun Sud’ means ‘Dogs are barking,’ ‘Kun Jo Mop’ means ‘Dogs and hourse’, and ‘Mut Tom Ko’ means ‘Donkeys are mad’. Which word in that language means ‘barking’?
(a) Sud (b) Kun (c) Jo (d) Tom

Answers–
1. (b) First three letters of the word are kept as they are sixth letter comes at fourth place shifting fourth and fifth letters to fifth and sixth places, respectively and the last two letters are exchanged.
2. (b) Each latter of the word has been written two letters back in the coded word, as their positions in the alphabet.
3. (c) Letters of the basic word are written in the coded word in such a way that last and first letters, second last and second letters, third last and third letter and so on are written together in the coded word.
4. (c) The word has been coded in such a way that codes for letter P are OQ (One letter behind and one letter ahead of P in alphabet). Similarly, codes for O are NP and so on.
5. (c) First four letters are reversed, two middle are reversed and then last four letters are reversed. Therefore, the word ADVANTAGES would be coded as AVDATNSEGA. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
6. (c) Last letter of the coded word is the next letter of the first letter of the basic word, second last letter is the next letter of the second one and so on in the alphabetical order.
7. (b) Letters of first half of the word are reversed, and than the letters of the second half of the word are reversed.
8. (b) Letters at the odd places are coded one letter ahead, and letters at the even places are coded one letter behind in the alphabetical order.
9. (c) Letters of first half of the word are coded with a gap of 0,1,2 letters in the forward direction, and letters of the second half are coded with a gap of 0,1,2 letters in the backward direction in alphabetical order.
10. (d) Each letter of the first word has been coded two letters ahead in the alphabetical order.
12. (a) Using the above procedure, we see that ‘maw gaw daw’ means creatures killed watchman.
13. (c) Code for ‘cik’ is ‘there’.
14. (d) In the first and fourth sentences, common word is ‘are’ and common number is 2, hence ‘are’ stands for ‘2’. Form the first and third sentences, ‘very’ stands for ‘3’. Form first and second sentences, ‘busy’ stands for ‘4’. So from the first statement ‘Men’ stands for ‘1’. Similarly, ‘need’ stands for ‘7’. From this we conclude that ‘Men need encouragement’ will be coded as ‘157’.
15. (a) In the first and second sentence, common word is ‘Dogs’ and common code is ‘Kun’. In the first and third sentences, common word is ‘are’ and common code is ‘Tom’. Therefore, form first sentence we get that ‘Sud’ stands for barking’.

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers

Direction Sense Test Questions with Answers MCQ of reasoning are very useful in Management (CAT, MAT), IBPS (PO and Clerk), SSC, SBI, LIC and other competitive exams.

1. A rat runs 20 m towards East and turns to right, runs 10m and turns to right run 9 m and again turns to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and runs 6 m. Now, which direction is the rat facing?
(B) East (B) North (C) West (D) South

2. Kishan Travelled 4 km straight towards South. He turned left and traveled 6 km straight, then turned right and traveled 4 km straight. How far is he from the starting point?
(B) 8 km (B) 10 km (C) 12 km (D) 18 km

3. B is to the South-West of A, C, is to the East of B and South-East of A and D is to the North of C in line with B and A. which direction of A is D located?
(B) North (B) East (C) South-East (D) North-East

4. A man walks 30 m towards South. Then turning to his right he walks 30 m. Then turning to his left he walks 20 m. Again turning to his left he walks 30 m. How far is he from his starting position?
(B) 30 m (B) 20 m (C) 80 m (D) None of these

5. A started from a place. After walking for 1 km, he turns to the left, then walking for 1/2 km, he again turns to left. Now, he is going Eastward direction. In which direction, did he originally start?
(B) West (B) East (C) South (D) North

6. Ms. A goes for her morning walk at 6 O’clock towards sun for 2 km, then she turns to her right and walks 3 km. She again turns to her left and walks 2 km, finally she turns to her left to walk another 6 km. In which direction is she moving and at what distance from the last turn, she is standing?
(B) 6 km, East (B) 9 km, East (C) 6 km, North (D) 9 km, North

7. A watch reads 4.30. If the minute hand points East, in what direction will the hour hand point?
(B) South-East (B) North-East (C) North (D) North-West

8. After walking 6 km I turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a distance of 5 km. In the end, I was moving towards the north. In which direction did I start the journey?
(B) North (B) South (C) East (D) West

9. A person walks 1 mile to West, turns left and walks 1 mile and turns left and walks 1 mile, and again turns left and walks 1 mile. What is the direction he is facing now?
(B) North (B) South (C) East (D) West

10. A man travels 2 m toward North, then he turns towards East and travels 3 m. Finally, he travels 6 m in South direction. How far is he from his starting point?
(B) 11 m (B) 9 m (C) 5 m (D) 3 m

11. If the digit 12 of a clock is pointing towards East, then in which direction will digit 9 point?
(B) South (B) West (C) North (D) North-East

12. Jaya starts from a point and travels 10ft in South-West direction, then she turns towards North and moves 8 ft. Finally, She turns towards right and moves 10 ft. How far is she from her starting point?
(B) 20 ft (B) 18 ft (C) 10 ft (D) 4 ft

13. A person starts towards South direction. Which of the following orders of directions will lead him to East direction?
(B) Right, Right, Right (B) Left, Left, Left (C) Left, Right, Right (D) Right, Left, Right

14. If East is replaced by South-East, then West will be replaced by which of the following directions?
(B) North-East (B) North (C) East (D) None of these

15. Deepak starts walking towards East. After walking 35 miles, he turns to his right and walks another 40 miles. He then turns right and walks another 35 miles. Finally, he turns right and walks 20 miles. How far is he from the starting point and in which direction?
(B) 20 miles, North (B) 35 miles, South (C) 20 miles, South (D) 35 miles, North

Answers–
1. (B), 2. (B), 3. (D), 4. (D), 5. (B), 6. (C), 7. (B), 8. (B), 9. (B), 10. (C),
11. (C), 12. (D), 13. (A), 14. (D), 15. (C)

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers

Direction Sense Test Questions with Answers MCQ of reasoning are very useful in Management (CAT, MAT), IBPS (PO and Clerk), SSC, SBI, LIC and other competitive exams.

1. A rat runs 20 m towards East and turns to right, runs 10m and turns to right run 9 m and again turns to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and runs 6 m. Now, which direction is the rat facing?
(B) East (B) North (C) West (D) South

2. Kishan Travelled 4 km straight towards South. He turned left and traveled 6 km straight, then turned right and traveled 4 km straight. How far is he from the starting point?
(B) 8 km (B) 10 km (C) 12 km (D) 18 km

3. B is to the South-West of A, C, is to the East of B and South-East of A and D is to the North of C in line with B and A. which direction of A is D located?
(B) North (B) East (C) South-East (D) North-East

4. A man walks 30 m towards South. Then turning to his right he walks 30 m. Then turning to his left he walks 20 m. Again turning to his left he walks 30 m. How far is he from his starting position?
(B) 30 m (B) 20 m (C) 80 m (D) None of these

5. A started from a place. After walking for 1 km, he turns to the left, then walking for 1/2 km, he again turns to left. Now, he is going Eastward direction. In which direction, did he originally start?
(B) West (B) East (C) South (D) North

6. Ms. A goes for her morning walk at 6 O’clock towards sun for 2 km, then she turns to her right and walks 3 km. She again turns to her left and walks 2 km, finally she turns to her left to walk another 6 km. In which direction is she moving and at what distance from the last turn, she is standing?
(B) 6 km, East (B) 9 km, East (C) 6 km, North (D) 9 km, North

7. A watch reads 4.30. If the minute hand points East, in what direction will the hour hand point?
(B) South-East (B) North-East (C) North (D) North-West

8. After walking 6 km I turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a distance of 5 km. In the end, I was moving towards the north. In which direction did I start the journey?
(B) North (B) South (C) East (D) West

9. A person walks 1 mile to West, turns left and walks 1 mile and turns left and walks 1 mile, and again turns left and walks 1 mile. What is the direction he is facing now?
(B) North (B) South (C) East (D) West

10. A man travels 2 m toward North, then he turns towards East and travels 3 m. Finally, he travels 6 m in South direction. How far is he from his starting point?
(B) 11 m (B) 9 m (C) 5 m (D) 3 m

11. If the digit 12 of a clock is pointing towards East, then in which direction will digit 9 point?
(B) South (B) West (C) North (D) North-East

12. Jaya starts from a point and travels 10ft in South-West direction, then she turns towards North and moves 8 ft. Finally, She turns towards right and moves 10 ft. How far is she from her starting point?
(B) 20 ft (B) 18 ft (C) 10 ft (D) 4 ft

13. A person starts towards South direction. Which of the following orders of directions will lead him to East direction?
(B) Right, Right, Right (B) Left, Left, Left (C) Left, Right, Right (D) Right, Left, Right

14. If East is replaced by South-East, then West will be replaced by which of the following directions?
(B) North-East (B) North (C) East (D) None of these

15. Deepak starts walking towards East. After walking 35 miles, he turns to his right and walks another 40 miles. He then turns right and walks another 35 miles. Finally, he turns right and walks 20 miles. How far is he from the starting point and in which direction?
(B) 20 miles, North (B) 35 miles, South (C) 20 miles, South (D) 35 miles, North

Answers–
1. (B), 2. (B), 3. (D), 4. (D), 5. (B), 6. (C), 7. (B), 8. (B), 9. (B), 10. (C),
11. (C), 12. (D), 13. (A), 14. (D), 15. (C)

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers 044

71. Which country has the largest coastline?
(a) USA (b) Australia (c) Canada (d) India (Ans : c)

72. The largest producer of aluminium in the world is–
(a) France (b) India (c) USA (d) Italy (Ans : c)

73. The Pennines (Europe), the Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of–
(a) young mountains (b) old mountains (c) block mountains (d) fold mountains (Ans : b)

74. Match the rivers with the cities through which they are flowing and select the correct answer using the codes given below–
City : A. Rotterdam B. Paris C. Budapest D. Washington
River : 1. Seine 2. Potomac 3. Rhine 4. Danube
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 3 2 1 (Ans : c)

75. Which is the largest metal trading centre?
(a) Johannesburg (b) New York (c) London (d) Singapore (Ans : b)

76. Which of the following drainage systems fall into Bay of Bengal ?
(a) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari (b) Mahanadi, Krishna and Cauvery
(c) Luni, Narmada and Tapti (d) Both (a) and (b) (Ans : d)

77. The oldest oil field in India is–
(a) Bombay High, Maharashtra (b) Ankleshwar, Gujarat
(c) Navagam, Gujarat (d) Digboi, Assam (Ans : d)

78. In India, ‘Yarlung Zangbo River’ is known as–
(a) Ganga (b) Indus (c) Brahmaputra (d) Mahanadi (Ans : c)

79. Which one of the following is the driest station?
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Leh (d) Bengaluru (Ans : c)

80. Which amongst the following States has not identified tribal community?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Haryana (d) Karnataka (Ans : c)

81. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located at–
(a) Chandigarh (b) Bharatpur (c) Gurgaon (d) Gandhinagar (Ans : c)

82. The forest area in India per person (in average hectare) is–
(a) 0.23 (b) 0.34 (c) 0.20 (d) 0.29 (Ans : c)

83. Which of the following States has agricultural area less than 60 per cent?
(a) West Bengal (b) Punjab (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar (Ans : d)

84. ‘Nagarjuna Sagar Multipurpose Project’ is on which river?
(a) Tapti (b) Kosi (c) Godavari (d) Krishna (Ans : d)

85. Dalmianagar of Bihar is famous for–
(a) Silk (b) Cement (c) Leather (d) Jute (Ans : b)

86. How much square metre forest area is there in Bihar?
(a) 2812 square metre (b) 3612 square metre
(c) 2461 square metre (d) 2612 square metre (Ans : d)

87. The two States of India, most richly endowed with iron ore, are–
(a) Bihar and West Bengal (b) Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
(c) Bihar and Odisha (d) Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal (Ans : b)

88. What is chiefly found at Jharia in Jharkhand?
(a) Thorium (b) Silk (c) Gold (d) Coal (Ans : d)

89. Which of the following towns is located easternmost of Bihar?
(a) Bhagalpur (b) Patna (c) Katihar (d) Purnia (Ans : c)

90. Which of the following lakes is situated in Bihar?
(a) Anupam Lake (b) Sambhar Lake (c) Sukhna lake (d) Kama Lake (Ans : a)

91. The Decentralization System was recommended by–
(a) C. Rajagopalachari (b) J. B. Kripalani (c) Balwant Rai Mehta (d) Ashok Mehta (Ans : c)

92. Mahalanobis Plan Model adopted in India in the mid-fifties aimed at–
(a) building a strong defence industry base (b) setting up heavy industries which were capital intensive
(c) curbing inflation in the economy (d) removing unemployment within a short period (Ans : b)

93. Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below–
Column-A :
A. 1955 B. 1964 C. 1982 D. 1987
Column-B
1. Export Import Bank of India 2. Industrial Development Bank of India
3. Industrial Credit and Investment 4. Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3 (Ans : c)

94. Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below–
Column-A :
A. Open-general license B. TRYSEM C. Wholesale price index D. Cash-reserve
Column-B :
1. Employment 2. External trade 3. Credit control 4. Inflation ratio
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 2 1 4 (Ans : a)

95. The controlling authority of government expenditure is–
(a) the Reverse Bank of India (b) the Planning Commission
(c) the Finance Ministry (d) the Finance Commission (Ans : c)

96. Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget of–
(a) 2010-11 (b) 2011-12 (c) 2009-10 (d) 2012-13 (Ans : b)

97. Interest payment is an item of–
(a) revenue expenditure (b) capital expenditure
(c) plan expenditure (d) None of the above (Ans : a)

98. The HDI rank of India as per the HDR-2014 is–
(a) 137 (b) 128 (c) 135 (d) 147 (Ans : c)

99. Consider the following consumer price indices–
I. Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers
II. Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers
III. Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers
IV. Consumer Price Index for Urban Non-Manual Employees
Which of the above indices is/ are compiled by Central Statistical Organization (CSO)?
(a) only 111 and IV (b) Only I, II and III (c) Only IV (d) I, II, III and IV (Ans : c)

100. What is the total production of oilseeds in India in 2013-14 ?
(a) 34. 32 million tonnes (b) 43. 34 million tonnes
(c) 20. 89 million tonnes (d) 30. 72 million tonnes (Ans : a)

101. India earns maximum foreign exchange by the export of–
(a) iron (b) tea (c) textile (d) rubber (Ans : b)

102. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called–
(a) hot currency (b) gold currency (c) soft currency (d) hard currency (Ans : a)

103. Which one of the following is not included in the National Food Security Missions ?
(a) Oilseeds (b) Wheat (c) Rice (d) Pulses (Ans : a)

104. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on–
(a) 1st April, 1992 (b) 1st April, 1994 (c) 31st March, 1996 (d) 31st March, 1997 (Ans : d)

105. R. N. Malhotra Committee is associated with–
(a) sick industries (b) tax reforms (c) insurance sector (d) banking sector (Ans : c)

106. Service tax in India was introduced in the year–
(a) 1994-95 (b) 1996-97 (c) 1998-99 (d) 1991-92 (Ans : a)

107. Convertibility of the rupee implies–
(a) being able to convert rupee notes into gold
(b) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa
(c) allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by market forces
(d) developing an international market for currencies in India (Ans : b)

108. Consider the following important sources of tax revenue for the Central Government–
I. Corporation tax II. Taxes on income other than corporation tax
III. Customs IV. Union excise duties
Which one of the following is the correct descending order in terms of gross tax revenue ?
(a) I-II-IV-III (b) I-II-III-IV (c) III-I-II-IV (d) II-III-I-IV (Ans : a)

109. Which one of the following is the prescribed investment limit for medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006 ?
(a) More than Rs. 10 lakhs and less than Rs. 2 crores
(b) More than Rs. 2 crores and less than Rs. 5 crores
(c) More than Rs. 5 crores and less than Rs. 10 crores
(d) More than Rs. 10 crores (Ans : c)

110. What does infant mortality rate refer to?
(a) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 1000 live births
(b) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 1000 live births
(c) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 100 live births
(d) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 100 live births (Ans : b)

111. In which of the following years was the trade balance favourable to India?
(a) 1970-71 and 1974-75 (b) 1972-73 and 1976-77
(c) 1972-73 and 1975-76 (d) 1971-72 and 1976-77 (Ans : b)

112. Consider the following agreements–
I. ISLFTA (India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement)
II. SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area)
III. CECA (Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement between India and Singapore)
IV. SAPT A (South Asian Preferential Trade Arrangement)
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above agreements ?
(a) I-III-II-IV (b) IV-I-II-III (c) II-I-IV-III (d) I-II-III-IV (Ans : b)

113. During which year was the annual average growth rate (at constant prices) of agriculture and allied sectors negative ?
(a) 2002-03 (b) 2003-04 (c) 2005-06 (d) 2006-07 (Ans : a)

114. Consider the following statements–
I. Varsha Bima, the rainfall insurance scheme, is managed by the Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited’ (AICIL).
II. The scheme was introduced during the 2007 south-west monsoon period.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II (Ans : c)

115. Consider the following statements–
I. Bank rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its clients on their short-term borrowing.
II. Repo rate is the rate of interest which RBI charges its clients on their long-term borrowing.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both l-and II (d) Neither I nor II (Ans : c)

116. Financial sector reforms in India consist of–
(a) lowering down of CRR and SLR (b) entry of private firms in insurance sector
(c) deregulation of rate of interest (d) All of the above (Ans : d)

117. Which of the following is not a component of Bharat Nirman ?
(a) Rural housing (b) Rural electrification (c) Agro-based industries (d) Rural telephony (Ans : c)

118. According to the Planning Commission of India, which of the following are correct for the poverty line?
I. Rs. 42 per capita per day in urban area II. Rs. 26 per capita per day in rural area
III. Rs. 32 per capita per day in urban area IV. Rs. 32. per capita per day in rural area
Choose the correct option from the following–
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) III and IV (Ans : c)

119. Consider the following schemes–
I. EAS II. TRYSEM III. JRY IV. RLEGP
The correct chronological sequence of the launching of these schemes is–
(a) II-IV-I-III (b) IV-II-III-I (c) IV-III-I-II (d) II-IV-III-I (Ans : d)

120. Match Column-A with Column-B and select the correct answer using the codes given below–
Column-A
A. National Agricultural Policy B. Marine Fishing Policy
C. New Foreign Trade Policy D. Seventh Finance Commission
Column-B
1. 2004 2. 1978 3. 2000 4. 2014
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 1 4 2 (Ans : d)

121. Who founded the Pagal Panth ?
(a) Bulleh Shah (b) Karam Shah (c) Yaduvendra Singh (d) Swami Sahajananda (Ans : b)

122. Who were the Faraizis ?
(a) Followers of Haji Shariatullah (b) Followers of Dadu
(c) Followers of the Arya Samaj (d) Followers of the Muslim League (Ans : a)

123. The correct geographical location for the Ramosi Uprising was–
(a) Western India (b) Eastern Ghats (c) Eastern India (d) Western Ghats (Ans : d)

124. The Waghera Uprising happened in–
(a) Surat (b) Poona (c) Calicut (d) Baroda (Ans : d)

125. In order to control the media in India, ‘Acts’ were passed in–
(a) 1835, 1867, 1878, 1908 (b) 1854, 1864, 1872, 1910
(c) 1854, 1872, 1908, 1910 (d) 1867, 1908, 1910, 1919 (Ans : a)

126. The process of split in the Congress in the early years of the twentieth century began over–
(a) strategies of, the Congress Movement (b) objectives of the Congress Movement
(c) participation of the people in the Congress Movement (d) All of the above (Ans : a)

127. ‘New Lamps for Old’ was a series of articles (1893-94) that criticized the Congress for being out of touch with the ‘proletariat’.
Who was the author of these articles?
(a) Aurobindo Ghose (b) A. O. Hume (c) G. K. Gokhale (d) B. G. Tilak (Ans : a)

128. Fill in the blanks–
The Nehru Report was drafted by a committee headed by………. and the subject was………..
(a) Motilal Nehru and Jawaharlal Nehru; India’s relationship with the British Empire
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru; Local Self-Government in India
(c) Motilal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru; Constitutional arrangements in India (Ans : c)

129. What was the common relationship between Katherine Mayo, Aldous Huxley, Charles Andrews and William Digby?
(a) They wrote commentaries on the condition of India during the British rule
(b) They were supporters of the Indian National Movement
(c) They were opponents of the Indian National Movement
(d) They were friends of Mahatma Gandhi (Ans : a)

130. Who penned the following lines?
“Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamare dil me hai/Dekhna hai zor kitna baju-e-qatil me hai.”
(a) Bismil (b) Rajguru (c) Bhagat Singh (d) Azad (Ans : a)

131. Who raised the . demand of ‘Complete Independence” for the first time in 1921 ?
(a) Maulana Muhammad Ali (b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Maulana Hasrat Mohani (Ans : d)

132. Identify the years those are closest to the founding of the Communist Party of India and the RSS respectively.
(a) 1915, 1914 (b) 1925, 1925 (c) 1928, 1925 (d) 1925, 1929 (Ans : b)

133. Swami Sahajananda Saraswati formed the All India United Kisan Sabha with the demand for the ‘nationalization of land and waterways’………. .
(a) just before his death (b) at a very young age (c) in the 1930s (d) in the 1920s (Ans : a)

134. Fill in the blank– In………. , the rights of the tenants on land in Bengal and Bihar were given by the Bengal Tenancy Act.
(a) 1885 (b) 1886 (c) 1889 (d) 1900 (Ans : a)

135. Which Round Table Conference held in 1932 ?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth (Ans : c)

136. One of the popular beliefs in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920-22 was that victory would come to them because Gandhi………. .
(a) was the epitome of Dharma (b) was an accomplished politician
(c) knew the ways to defeat the English (d) knew English (Ans : a)

137. Who among the following was/were peasant leader(s) from Bihar?
I. Swami Vidyananda II. Swami Sahajananda III. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Choose the correct option from the Following–
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) Only II (Ans : d)

138. In which area was Rahul Sankrityayan active in the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920 ?
(a) Chhapra (b) Delhi (c) Lucknow (d) Patna (Ans : a)

139. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men and money
(b) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with men but not with money
(c) In 1857, the ‘Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords helped the English with money but not with men
(d) In 1857, the Maharajas of Darbhanga, Dumraon and Hatwa and their fellow landlords opposed the English (Ans : a)

140. Who highlighted the plight of the peasants of Champaran by writing under pseudonyms like ‘Dukhi’, ‘Dukhi Atma’, ‘Dukhi Hridaya’ ?
(a) Peer Muhammad Moonis (b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sahajananda Saraswati (d) S. N. Sinha (Ans : a)

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers 043

We are giving 140 questions of GENERAL INTELLIGENCE  of this exam with answers. These questions not only develop of your I.Q. but will useful for upcoming government exams also.

1. Cloves are obtained from which of the following parts of the plant?
(a) Dried leaves (b) Dried stems (c) Dried seeds (d) Dried flower buds (Ans : d)

2. Oncogenes are associated with–
(a) tuberculosis (b) hepatitis (c) cancer (d) typhoid (Ans : c)

3. Which is the most reactive metal?
(a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Iron (d) Potassium (Ans : d)

4. Who synthesized the DNA in vitro?
(a) Arthur Kornberg (b) Robert Hooke (c) Edward Jenner (d) Joseph Lister (Ans : a)

5. What was the fissionable material used in the bombs dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in the year 1945?
(a) Sodium (b) Potassium (c) Plutonium (d) Uranium (Ans : c)

6. The scientist who first discovered that the earth revolves round the sun was–
(a) Newton (b) Dalton (c) Copernicus (d) Einstein (Ans : c)

7. Cosmic rays–
(a) are charged particles (b) are uncharged particles
(c) can be charged as well as uncharged (d) None of the above (Ans : c)

8. Which of the following elements is found in all organic compounds?
(a) Carbon (b) Calcium (c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen (Ans : a)

9. Which of the following can cause cancer as well as cure it depending upon its intensity and use?
(a) Tobacco (b) Alcohol (c) Ionized radiation (d) Ultraviolet rays (Ans : c)

10. The total volume of blood in a normal adult human being is–
(a) 5-6 litres (b) 3-4litres (c) 8-10 litres (d) 10-12 litres (Ans : a)

11. Typhoid and cholera are typical examples of–
(a) infectious diseases (b) airborne diseases
(c) waterborne diseases (d) None of the above (Ans : c)

12. Energy is stored in liver and muscles in the form of–
(a) carbohydrate (b) fat (c) protein (d) glycogen (Ans : d)

13. Who discovered bacteria?
(a) Fleming (b) Lamble (c) Temin (d) Leeuwenhoek (Ans : d)

14. The reason of large-scale diversity among the organisms is–
(a) adaptation (b) cooperation (c) mutation (d) polyploidy (Ans : a)

15. What is vermiculture ?
(a) The science of raising worms (b) The science of studying animals
(c) The science of studying fishes (d) The science of killing worms (Ans : a)

16. The smallest organism, capable of autonomous growth and reproduction, is–
(a) virus (b) bacteria (c) mycoplasma (d) bacteriophage (Ans : c)

17. The first human heart transplant was performed in–
(a) America (b) England (c) South Africa (d) France (Ans : c)

18. The average blood flow through kidneys per minute is–
(a) 1000 cc (b) 1200 cc (c) 200 cc (d) 500 cc (Ans : b)

19. A plant bud is–
(a) an embryonic shoot (b) an embryonic leaf (c) an endosperm (d) a seed (Ans : a)

20. Which of the following gases is used in cigarette lighters?
(a) Butane (b) Methane (c) Propane (d) Radon (Ans : a)

21. The Union Health Minister launched Mental Health Policy on–
(a) 20th October, 2014 (b) 10th October, 2014 (c) 5th October, 2014 (d) 11th July, 2014 (Ans : b)

22. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana on–
(a) 11th October, 2014 (b) 10th November, 2014 (c) 26th August, 2014 (d) 15th August, 2014 (Ans : a)

23. The 11th Metropolis Congress was organized in Hyderabad in–
(a) September 2013 (b) January 2014 (c) October 2014 (d) November 2014 (Ans : c)

24. In which area was the Indo-US military exercise ‘Yudh Abhyas 2014’ held?
(a) Solan (Himachal Pradesh) (b) Gairsen (Uttarakhand)
(c) Ranikhet (Uttarakhand) (d) Poonch (Jammu and Kashmir) (Ans : c)

25. Which of the following groups of political parties could not win a single seat in the 16th Lok Sabha Election?
(a) MNS, BSP, SP, RJD (b) SP, BSP, National Conference, RLD
(c) JD(U), BSP, NCP, RJD (d) DMK, RLD, National Conference, BSP (Ans : d)

26. President Pranab Mukherjee on 7th October, 2014 presented the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for excellence in Public Administration, Academics and Management for the year 2014 to–
(a) V. Sampath (b) Dr. A. S. Pillai (c) Arvind Mayaram (d) Ajit Dobhal (Ans : b)

27. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the 7th Central Pay Commission constituted by the Government of India in February 2014 ?
(a) Justice B. K. Singh (b) Justice Swatanter Kumar
(c) Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur (d) Justice Mridula Singh (Ans : c)

28. Justice J. S. Verma Committee’s Report, 2013 deals with–
(a) Centre-State relations (b) change in law pertaining to offences against women
(c) the Fundamental Rights (d) rights of children (Ans : b)

29. How many members are elected from Bihar to the Lok Sabha ?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 40 (Ans : d)

30. What is the unique festival of Bihar?
(a) Deepawali (b) Bisu (c) Vinayak Chaturthi (d) Chhath Puja (Ans : d)

31. Who among the following has been awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2014 ?
(a) Kailash Satyarthi (b) Malala Yousafzai (c) Jean Tirole (d) Patrick Modiano (Ans : d)

32. Which among the following European Union countries is the first to officially recognize the State of Palestine?
(a) Sweden (b) Denmark (c) Norway (d) Italy (Ans : a)

33. Which one of the following countries has decided in January 2014 to make military service compulsory for all its adult males?
(a) North Korea (b) UAE (c) Israel (d) Turkey (Ans : b)

34. What is the theme of Global Financial Development Report, 2014?
(a) Hunger and poverty (b) Corruption and fraud in corporate sector
(c) Financial inclusion (d) Global recession and the Third World (Ans : c)

35. Who among the following has/ have figured in ‘Time’ magazine’s list of 25 most influential teens of 2014 ?
(a) Malia and Sasha Obama (b) Kendall and Kylie Jenner
(c) Malala Yousafzai (d) All of them (Ans : d)

36. The Seventh BRICS Summit is proposed to be held in 2015 at–
(a) Durban, South Africa (b) Ufa, Russia (c) New Delhi, India (d) Sanya, China (Ans : b)

37. The International Day of Persons with Disabilities is celebrated on–
(a) 10th December (b) 24th October (c) 19th November (d) 3rd December (Ans : d)

38. Amnesty International is an organization which is associated with–
(a) protection of women’s rights (b) protection of human rights
(c) abolition of untouchability (d) None of the above (Ans : b)

39. In October 2014, India has been reelected for three years as a member to–
(a) the UN Security Council (b) the UN General Assembly
(c) the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) (d) the World Bank (Ans : c)

40. Angola, Malaysia, New Zealand, Spain and Venezuela were elected as non-permanent members on 16th October, 2014 to serve in–
(a) the UN General Assembly (b) the UN Trusteeship Council
(c) the UN Human Rights Commission (d) the UN Security Council (Ans : d)

41. Which one of the following countries won the highest number of Gold Medals at the Winter Olympic Games held in Sochi in February 2014?
(a) Canada (b) Russia (c) Norway (d) USA (Ans : b)

42. Who among the following cricket all-rounders cracked the fastest century in one-day international cricket history in January 2014 ?
(a) Darren Bravo (b) James Faulkner (c) Glenn Maxwell (d) Corey Anderson (Ans : d)

43. Who was the winner of the Champions League T-20, 2014 ?
(a) Kolkata Knight Riders (India) (b) Rajasthan Royals (India)
(c) Sydney Sixers (Australia) (d) Chennai Super Kings (India) (Ans : d)

44. What was India’s position in the 17th Asian Games in 2014 ?
(a) 8th (b) 6th (c) 3rd (d) 4th (Ans : a)

45. Who among the following was the Gold Medal winner in the 17th Asian Games Men’s Freestyle 65 kg Wrestling?
(a) Jittu Rai (b) Sandeep Kumar (c) Rajat Chauhan (d) Yogeshwar Dutt (Ans : d)

46. Which country achieved the fifth position in the 20th Commonwealth Games?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Nepal (c) England (d) India (Ans : d)

47. Who won her first Grand Slam Australian Open Tennis Competition, 2014 (Women’s Singles) ?
(a) Li Na (b) Dominika Cibulkova (c) Sara Errani (d) None of them (Ans : a)

48. The winner of the SAFF Tournament, 2013 was–
(a) India (b) Maldives (c) Afghanistan (d) Nepal (Ans : c)

49. Which award is given for excellence in sports?
(a) Jamnalal Bajaj Award (b) Arjuna Award (c) Tagore Award (d) Moortidevi Award (Ans : b)

50. ‘Prince of Wales Cup’ is associated with the game of–
(a) Hockey (b) Cricket (c) Football (d) Golf (Ans : d)

51. Who among the following was not associated with the excavation of Harappa and Mohenjo-daro?
(a) R. D. Banerjee (b) K. N. Dikshit (c) M. S. Vats (d) V. A. Smith (Ans : d)

52. Gautama Buddha gave his first sermon at–
(a) Vaishali (b) Kaushambi (c) Sarnath (d) Pawapuri (Ans : c)

53. Who is called ‘the Napoleon of Ancient India’?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya (b) Pushyamitra (c) Kanishka (d) Samudragupta (Ans : d)

54. Which Chinese traveller visited India during Harshavardhana’s rules?
(a) Fa-Hien (b) Hiuen-Tsang (c) I-tsing (d) Taranath (Ans : b)

55. What is ‘Dhai Din Ka Zhonpda’?
(a) Mosque (b) Temple (c) Saint’s hut (d) Tower (Ans : a)

56. In which language was ‘Tuzuk-i-Baburi’ written ?
(a) Persian (b) Arabic (c) Turkish (d) Urdu (Ans : c)

57. Who was the commander of Rana Pratap’s army in the Battle of Haldighati ?
(a) Amar Singh (b) Man Singh (c) Hakim Khan (d) Shakti Singh (Ans : c)

58. Where was the capital of Shivaji ?
(a) Raigarh (b) Sindhudurg (c) Poona (d) Kolhapur (Ans : a)

59. In which year was the Regulating Act passed?
(a) AD 1757 (b) AD 1765 (c) AD 1773 (d) AD 1793 (Ans : c)

60. Who was the Governor-General of India in 1857?
(a) Wellesley (b) Dalhousie (c) Canning (d) Minto (Ans : c)

61. After which incident Mahatma Gandhi had called Non-Cooperation Movement as his ‘Himalayan Blunder’ ?
(a) Chauri-Chaura (b) Kheda Satyagraha (c) Nagpur Satyagraha (d) Rajkot Satyagraha (Ans : a)

62. Which movement started after the Partition of Bengal ?
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement (b) Swadeshi Movement
(c) Quit India Movement (d) Non-Cooperation Movement (Ans : b)

63. Who was the first Indian woman President of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Mrs. Annie Besant (b) Sucheta Kripalani (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Indira Gandhi (Ans : c)

64. Where did Madam Cama hoist the first tricolour flag in 1907 ?
(a) tendon (b) Paris (c) Moscow (d) Stuttgart (Ans : d)

65. Who was the founder of Nalanda University?
(a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya (b) Kumargupta (c) Dharmapal (d) Pushyagupta (Ans : b)

66. At which place in Bihar Gandhiji had his first Satyagraha?
(a) Champaran (b) Chhapra (c) Bettiah (d) Patna (Ans : a)

67. Who was the author of ‘Indica’ ?
(a) Vishnugupta (b) Megasthenes (c) Diamechus (d) Pliny (Ans : d)

68. Which Sikh Guru was born at Patna?
(a) Nanak (b) Teg Bahadur (c) Hargobind (d) Gobind Singh (Ans : d)

69. Who was the President of Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1922 ?
(a) Chittaranjan Das (b) S. N. Banerjee (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Hakim Ajmal Khan (Ans : a)

70. By which name is Jay Prakash Narayan known ?
(a) Lokmanya (b) Loknayak (c) Lokhitvadi (d) Lokneta (Ans : b)

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers

All Questions with Answers MCQ of reasoning are very useful in Management (CAT, MAT), IBPS (PO and Clerk), SSC, SBI, LIC and other competitive exams.

1. If the first half of the above alphabets is written in the reverse order, which letter will be exactly middle between the 9th letter from the left and the 10th letter from the right end?
(a) B (b) A (c) N (d) D (e) None of these

2. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CONTEMPORARY’ which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabets?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) More than four

3. How many pairs of letters in the word “DABBLE” have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabets?
(a) Nil (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) None of these

4. Vijay is ranked 14th in a class of 43 students. What is his rank from the bottom?
(a) 30th (b) 28th (c) 29th (d) 31st  (e) None of these

5. Amit is ranked 12th from the top and Ravi is ranked 15th from the bottom in a class of 35 students. How many students are there between Amit and Ravi?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) None of these

6. In a class the names of boys are arranged alphabetically. Gaurav and Saurabh have 14 boys between them. If Gaurav is 37th from the bottom, Saurabh would be at what position from the top?
(a) 25th (b) 28th (c) 27th (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

7. If the following scrambled letters are rearranged to form the name of a city, which letter will appear in the middle?
AIDMURA
(a) M (b) R (c) U (d) D (e) None of these

8. If the above alphabets, are written in the reverse order, which letter will be 12th to the left of the 16th letter from the left?
(a) X (b) W (c) D (d) V (e) None of these

9. Lokesh remembers that his brother laxman’s birthday is after 20th of August but before 28th of August, while Rita remembers that Laxman’s birthday is before 22nd of August but after 12th of August On which date does Laxman’s birthday fall?
(a) 20th (b) 21st August (c) 22nd August (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

10. In a row of boys, Rajan is 10th from the right and Suraj is 10th from the left. When Rajan and Suraj interchange their positions, Suraj wll be 27th from the left. Which of the following will be Rajan’s position from the right?
(a) 10th (b) 26th (c) 29th (d) 25th (e) None of these

11. Radha remembers that her father’s birthday is after 16th but before 21st of March, while her brother Mahesh remembers that his father’s birthday is before 22nd but after 19th of March. On which date is the birthday of their father?
(a) 19th (b) 20th (c) 21st (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘ADVERTISEMENT’, which have as many letters between them is the word as in the alphabets?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) More than five (e) None of these

13. If the letters in the word ‘POWERFUL’ are rearranged an they appear in the English alphabet, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged after such rearrangement?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

14. The position of 1st and 6th digits in the number 2796543018 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of 2nd and 7th digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be 3rd digit to the left of 7th digit from the left end?
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 1 (d) 0 (e) None of these

15. If a meaningful word can be formed from APSG, by using each letter only once, then the third letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, your answer is Y and if no such word can be formed, then your answer is Z.
(a) Z (b) Y (c) P (d) G (e) S

Answers–
1. (c)
2. (e) ON, PO, MO, OR, OY are the pairs which have as many letters between them in the word ‘CONTEMPORARY’ as in the alphabets.
3. (e) There are four pairs D (A) B, B (BL) E, A (BBL) E and A (B) B which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabetical order.
4. (a) Vijay’s rank from the bottom is (43 – 14) + 1 = 30th
5. (a) If total number in the class and sum of the position from both ends, the number of students between Amit and Ravi = 35 – (12 + 15) = 18
6. (d) Since it is not given that now many boys are before Gaurav, the position of Saurabh from the top cannot be determined.
7. (c) The city name is ‘MADURAI’ and letter U exists exactly in the middle.
8. (b) If the alphabets are written in reverse order, then 16th letter from the left would be K and 12th from the left of K will be W.
9. (b) 21st August is the date which is common on the memory of both the persons.
10. (e) Initially, Rajan is tenth from the right and his position is occupied by the Suraj after interchange takes place and this position becomes twenty-seventh from the left.
Therefore, total numbers of students = 10 + 27 – 1 = 36 and Rajan’s position from the right = Total number of student-His position from the left + 1.
Therefore, Rajan’s position from the right = 36 – 10 + 1 = 27
11. (b) 20th March
12. (d) There are six pairs D (VERT) I, I (SEM) E, D(VERTISEME) N, R (TISE)M, T (ISEME)N and I(SEME) N which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabets.
13. (b)
14. (c) :The new number after interchanging the digits is 4 3 0 1 8 2 7 9 6 5. So, the required number is 1.
15. (c) There is only one meaningful word using letters, A, P. G and S, i.e., GAPS.

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers

Statement and Assumptions Questions with Answers MCQ of reasoning are very useful in Management (CAT, MAT), IBPS (PO and Clerk), SSC, SBI, LIC and other competitive exams.

Directions : In each of the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give your answer as
(a) if only assumption I is implicit
(b) if only assumption II is implicit
(c) if either I or II is implicit
(d) if neither I nor implicit
(e) if both I and II are implicit

1. Statement : It is desirable to put the child in the school at the age of 5 years or so.
Assumptions : I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to lean.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.

2. Statement : “You must learn to refer to a dictionary if you want to become a good writer” – A advises B.
Assumptions : I. Only writers refer to the dictionary.
II. All writers, good or bad, refer to the dictionary.

3. Statement : Government aided schools should have uniformity in charging various fees.
Assumptions : I. The Government’s subsidy comes from the money collected by way of taxes from people.
II. The Government, while giving subsidy, may have stipulated certain uniform conditions regarding fees.

4. Statement : Everybody loves reading adventure stories.
Assumptions : I. Adventure stories are the only reading material.
II. Nobody loves reading any other material.

5. Statement : A warning in a train compartment – “To stop train pull chain. Penalty for improper use Rs 500.”
Assumptions : I. Some people misuse the chain.
II. On certain occasions, people may want to stop a running train.

6. Statement : “If we need to boost our exports, we can’t ignore our ports”. An economic analyst.
Assumptions : I. Our ports are in a good shape.
II. Our ports are not in good shape.

7. Statement : A good manager must draw the utmost from each worker.
Assumptions : I. It is possible to get the maximum from each worker.
II. Managers are expected to get the best from their workers.

8. Statement : If you offer peanuts, you get only monkeys.
Assumptions : I. I money is not a good motivation.
II. Money can’t buy everything.

9. Statement : “We need to appoint more teachers”– Principal informs the school staff.
Assumptions : I. Teachers are available.
II. Present teachers are not good.

10. Statement : “Buy pure and natural honey of company ‘X’– An advertisement in a newspaper.
Assumptions : I. Artificial honey can be prepared.
II. People don’t mind paying more for pure and natural honey.

11. Statement : The target of a fiscal deficit of 5% of GDP could not be met because of major shortfall in revenue collection.
Assumptions : I. Shortfall in revenue collection leads to an increase in fiscal deficit.
II. Shortfall in revenue collection leads to a decrease in fiscal deficit.

12. Statement : Every year doctors, scientists and engineers migrate from India to greener pastures.
Assumptions : I. Brain-drain has affected India adversely.
II. Better scales and better standards of living act as a bait to lure them.

13. Statement : If you don’t get desired response to your fund-raising campaigns through the routine advertisements appeal to the public’s regional sentiments.
Assumptions : I. People in general nurture regional sentiments.
II. Nobody bothers to read advertisements in the newspaper.

14. Statement : It is not always true that adoption of sophisticated technology increases production and efficiency.
Assumptions : I. Adoption of sophisticated technology is not a difficult thing to achieve.
II. Production and efficiency can be increased by getting rid of sophisticated technology.

15. Statement : If children are to manage our world in future, then they need to be equipped to do so.
Assumptions : I. The world has always educated children.
II. It is possible to educate children.

ANSWER
1. (d) None of the assumptions is implicit as nothing can be said definitely.
2. (b) Assumption I is not related with the statement, hence is not implicit in the statement. Assumption II is implicit as it gives the solid base for the fact defined in the statement.
3. (d) None of the assumptions is implicit as each assumption lacks valid premises.
4. (e) It is clear that penalty will be imposed for improper use, hence it is clear that some people misuse the chain, hence assumptions I and II, both are implicit.
5. (d) None of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
6. (e) Both the assumptions are clearly implicit in the statement.
7. (d) None of the assumption is related with the statement, and hence, not implicit in the statement.
8. (a) School requires more teachers. It is assumed in the light of statement that teachers are available but it cannot be said that present staff of teachers is not good. Hence, only assumption I is implicit.
9. (a) Since the advertisement vouches for pure and natural honey, hence it is assumed that artificial honey can be prepared. However, assumption II is not based on the statement.
10. (a) Clearly, the statement is based on the assumption that shortfall in revenue collection leads to an increase in fiscal deficit, Hence, assumption I is implicit.
11. (b) The statement is based on the assumption that lucrative offers tempt the scientists to migrate abroad. Hence, only assumption II is implicit.
12. (a) It is assumed in the light of statement that people nurture regional sentiments, Assumption II is not implicit because fund-raising is also expected from appeal through advertisements.
13. (d) None of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
14. (d) None of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
15. (d) None of the assumptions is implicit in the statement

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers

1. Which one of the following is not essential for an offence? (MP. APO.)
(A) Intention (B) Motive (C) Prohibited act (D) Punishment for act (Ans : B)

2. In which of the following mens rea has been considered to be an essential element of an offence? (MP. APO.)
(A) Srinivasmal Barolia Vs. Emperor (B) R. Vs. Tolsen
(C) Nathulal Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

3. Which one of the following is not a valuable security?
(A) A postal receipt for an insured parcel (B) A rent note
(C) A promissory note (D) Added of divoree (Ans : D)

4. Common Intention means– (U.P.A.P.O.)
(A) Similar intention (B) Same intention
(C) Sharing of intention by all persons (D) Common plans (Ans : C)

5. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child of– (Chhat. J.S. Exam)
(A) Eight years (B) Ten years (C) Seven years (D) Twelve years (Ans : C)

6. What punishment may be awarded to the person, whose act is covered under general exceptions? (Chhat. J. S.)
(A) No punishment (B) Half of the punishment prescribed for that offence
(C) One-fourth the of the punishment prescribed for offence (D) Depends upon discretion of court (Ans : A)

7. Insanity is–
(A) Lack of free will (B) Incapacity produced due to drunkenness
(C) Incapable of knowing nature of act committed (D) Diseased mind (Ans : D)

8. A instigates B to give false evidence here if B does not give false evidence what offence A has committed? (M.P.C.J.)
(A) A is guilty of no offence (B) Attempt to give false evidence
(C) Offence punishable with the imprisonment of any description provided for that offence for a term which may extend to one-fourth part of longest term provided for that offence and with fine
(D) None of above (Ans : C)

9. Minimum number of persons required to commit an affray is– (M.P.C.J.)
(A) Five (B) Two (C) Ten (D) Eleven (Ans : B)

10. A puts his hand in pocket of B for stealing money but pocket was empty. A is guilty of–
(A) Theft (B) Not guilty of theft (C) Guilty of attempt to commit theft (D) Not guilty of any offence (Ans : C)

11. Any hurt is grievous if it causes sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits during space of– (Chhat. J.S.)
(A) Fifteen days (B) Twenty days (C) Twenty five days (D) Thirty days (Ans : B)

12. Sexual intercourse by a man with a woman even with her consent is a rape if she is below age of– (U.P.A.P.O.)
(A) 17 years (B) 16 years (C) 19 years (D) 18 years (Ans : B)

13. For abduction abducted person should be–
(A) Below 16 years of age (B) Below 18 years of age (C) insane person (D) Of any age (Ans : D)

14. A does sexual intercourse with a widow below 16 years of age with her consent– (M.P.A.P.O.)
(A) A has not committed Rape (B) A has committed Adultery
(C) A has committed Rape with B (D) Nothing above is correct (Ans : C)

15. Making preparation to commit dacoity is punishable in the Indian Penal Code 1860 under– (U.P.A.P.O.)
(A) Section 393 (B) Section 395(C) Section 398 (D) Section 399 (Ans : D)

16. There is no offence of adultery if it is committed, with consent of–
(A) Woman (B) Husband of woman (C) Member of family of woman (D) Wife of adulterer (Ans : b)
17. A cheats by pretending to be B, a person who is deceased. A commits–
(A) Cheating (B) Cheating by presentation (C) Extortion (D) Dacoity (Ans : B)

18. A commits house trespass by entering Z’s house through a window it is–
(A) Mischief (B) House-breaking (C) Extortion (D) None of the above (Ans : B)

19. A finds a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs he afterwards discovers that it belongs to B and appropriates to his own use. A is guilty of– (U.P.A.P.O.)
(A) Theft (B) Criminal Misappropriation (C) Criminal Breach of Trust (D) Cheating (Ans : B)

20. A makes an attempt to pick pocket of B by thrusting his hand into B’s pocket. A fails in attempt in consequence of B’s having nothing in his pocket. A is guilty of– (M.P.C.J.)
(A) No offence (B) Theft (C) Attempt of theft (D) Using Criminal Force (Ans : c)

English General Knowledge Questions and Answers

1. Which type of institution keeps information about the past credit history of customers?
(A) SEBI (B) Union Ministry of Finance (C) IRDA
(D) CIBIL (E) Reserve Bank of India (Ans : D)

2. Which of the following credit control methods regulated by the Reserve Bank of India is not a quantitative method?
(A) Bank Rate (B) Open Market Operation (C) CRR
(D) Repo Rate (E) Margin requirements (Ans : E)

3. Who, among the following, is the Chancellor of Germany?
(A) Angela Merkel (B) Helmut Kohl (C) Gerhard Schroder
(D) Helmut Schmidt (E) Willy Brandt (Ans : A)

4. The Government of India provides debt relief in the agriculture sector. Which of the following institutions heads the accounting in this regard?
(A) NABARD (B) Regional Rural Banks (C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (E) Both (B) and (C) (Ans : D)

5. When a bank is financing an “International Business” it in fact, is involved in which of the following?
(A) Micro Finance (B) Retail Banking (C) Core Banking
(D) Trade Finance (E) All of these (Ans : D)

6. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Small is Beautiful” ?
(A) Ben Okri (B) Ernest Schumacher (C) Dominique Lapierre
(D) Gunter Grass (E) Sidney Sheldon (Ans : B)

7. Which of the following awards is given by an Indian organization?
(A) Normon Borloug Award (B) OSCAR Award (C) Ramon Mag-say-say Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize (E) Man Booker Prize (Ans : A)

8. Which of the following schemes/products launched by the banks to provide instant loan facility to the farmers?
(A) Kisan Credit Card (B) Krishi BimaYojana (C) Crop Loan Scheme
(D) Corporate Loan Scheme (E) None of these (Ans : A)

9. The cooperative movement in which of the following fields has achieved a great visible success in India?
(A) Milk production (B) Banking sector (C) Textile sector
(D) Cotton production (E) None of these (Ans : A)

10. The Reserve Bank of India does not print currency notes of the denomination of –
(A) 20 (B) 50 (C) 3,000 (D) 1,000 (E) 500 (Ans : C)

11. Which of the following is considered as the financial capital of India?
(A) New Delhi (B) Kolkata (C) Bangalore (D) Ahmedabad (E) None of these (Ans : E)

12. Olympic games are organised after a gap of every –
(A) Two year (B) Three year (C) Four year (D) Five year (E) Six months (Ans : C)

13. By which name was Kanyakumari formerly known?
(A) Cape Comorin (B) Tuticorin (C) Pulicat (D) Muziris (E) Karikal (Ans : A)

14. How many languages are there in Indian currency?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 17 (E) 22 (Ans : D)

15. What is the full form of IBSA?
(A) India, Brazil, South Africa (B) India, Bhutan, Sri Lanka
(C) India, Brazil, Switzerland, Australia (D) India, Britain, South Africa
(E) India, Burma, Singapore (Ans : A)

16. Who, at present, is the External Affairs Minister of India?
(A) Arun Jaitley (B) Rajnath Singh (C) Sushma Swaraj
(D) Narendra Modi (E) Jaswant Singh (Ans : C)

17. International Standards on Combating Money Laundering and the Financing of Terrorism and Proliferation are framed by –
(A) KYC (B) FATF (C) TAP1 (D) ICOA (E) SWIFT (Ans : B)

18. The National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) has launched a mobile based payment facility. This facility is known as –
(A) NEFT (B)RTGS (C) IMPS (D) USSD (E) INSTAPAY (Ans : C)

19. Who, at present is the chairman of the State Bank of India?
(A) Ashwini Kumar (B) D.P. Singh (C) Seema Goyal
(D) Rajeev Rishi (E) Arundhati Bhattacharya (Ans : E)

20. India recently signed Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with ………… to prevent income tax evasion by entities in both the countries.
(A) Latvia (B) Belgium (C) Argentina (D) Switzerland (E) Mauritius (Ans : A)

21. Which of the following nations is found at the top of the ‘World’s Green Index’, compiled by various global agencies jointly?
(A) China (B) India (C) USA (D) Britain (E) Japan (Ans : B)

22. Which of the following agencies has estimated that by the year 2015 about a quarter of India’s population will be living in extreme poverty?
(A) Asian Development Bank (B) World Bank
(C) UN Economic and Social Council
(D) UN Food and Agricultural Organisation
(E) International Monetary Fund (Ans : B)

23. As per the reports of the survey conducted by various agencies jointly, which of the following countries is adjudged as the ‘Most Favoured Nation’ for back office support to the world’s major multinationals?
(A) China (B) South Africa (C) Singapore
(D) India (E) None of these (Ans : C)

24. The ‘H1N1’ virus is responsible for the outbreak of which of the following in the world?
(A) AIDS (B) Swine Flue (C) Polio (D) T.B. (E) Chikungunya (Ans : D)

25. What does the letter ‘S’ denote in ‘AFSPA’ an abbreviation we very often see in newspapers?
(A) Slow (B) Special (C) State (D) Solid (E) Sovereign (Ans : B)

26. Who among the following won the Eurovision Song Contest on May 11, 2014 in Copenhagen?
(A) Sanna Nielsen of Sweden (B) Camila Snieden of Armenia
(C) Conchita Wurst of Austria (D) Claudia Bolivar of Belarus
(E) None of these (Ans : D)

27. Rohan Bopanna who represented India in an international event is a –
(A) Billiards Player (B) Golf Player (C) Chess Player
(D) Table Tennis Player (E) Lawn Tennis Player (Ans : E)

28. Which of the following statements is/are true about the report released by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in May 2014 ?
(A) India’s growth is estimated to accelerate to 5.9 per cent in 2015
(B) Estimated global economic growth rate in 2014 at 3.4 per cent
(C) Falling inflation in the euro zone is a cause for concern
(D) All of the above (E) None of these (Ans : D)

29. Bad loans in banking terminology are generally known as –
(A) Prime Loans (B) Prime Asset (C) BPOs (D) CBS (E) NPAs (Ans : E)

30. “Yen” is the currency of –
(A) China (B) South Korea (C) North Korea (D) Taiwan (E) None of these (Ans : E)

31. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of Literature ?
(A) Saraswati Samman (B) Tansen Samman (C) Kalidas Samman
(D) Arjuna Award (E) None of these (Ans : A)

32. Which of the following terms is not related with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Back Swing (B) Short grip (C) Hook
(D) Slice (E) Short comer (Ans : E)